Chapter 1
1. The essential modifier used by geographers in forming their concepts is:
a. absolute
b. human
c. relative
d. spatial
2. The characteristics of places today are the result of:
a. current inhabitants
b. constantly changing past conditions
c. technology
d. level of education
3. Earth areas that display significant elements of uniformity are called:
a. absolute locations
b. regions
c. the cultural landscape
d. traditions
4. The process of dispersion of an idea or a thing from a center of origin to more distant points is known as:
a. distance decay
b. accessibility
c. spatial distribution
d. spatial diffusion
5. An example of a formal region is:
a. a tropical rain forest
b. the retail trade area of Chicago
c. the newspaper circulation area of the Los Angeles Times
d. the Federal Reserve District of Philadelphia
6. The visible imprint of human activity is known as:
a. spatial interaction
b. the attributes of the setting
c. the cultural landscape
d. the physical landscape
7. Scale tells us:
a. the size of the map
b. the relationship between an area on a map and the actual area on the surface of the earth
c. the direction between at least two points on a map
d. the direction of magnetic north
8. The cardinal compass points of north, south, east, and west form the basis of:
a. relative direction
b. site
c. absolute direction
d. relative distance
9. Which of the following is not one of the five fundamental themes that recur in all geographic inquiry?
a. time
b. location
c. place
d. movement
10. The processes and patterns of spatial interaction employ all of the following ideas except:
a. distance
b. accessibility
c. connectivity
d. landscape
11. Who was responsible for the development of the four traditions of geography?
a. the ancient Greeks
b. Strabo
c. William D. Pattison
d. J. Lewis Robinson
12. People's perceptions of their environment falls under which one of the four traditions?
a. earth science
b. culture-enviromnent
c. locational
d. area analysis
13. Distance decay refers to:
a. the decrease in interaction as the distance between phenomena increases
b. the clustering of populations in urban areas as opposed to rural areas
c. spheres of influence
d. the spatial organization of peoples, places and environments on the earth's surface
14. An example of the description of a place in terms of its absolute location is:
a. along the Potomac River
b. 40 miles west of Chicago
c. the terminus of Interstate 90
d. 1600 Pennsylvania Avenue
15. Strabo's primary task was to:
a. caution civilizations against the assumption that the nature and actions of humans were determined by
the physical environment
b. create a global grid system
c. describe known parts of the inhabited world
d. explore the apparent latitudinal variations in climate
1. D - spatial
2. B - constantly changing past conditions
3. B - regions
4. D - spatial diffision
5. A - a tropical rain forest
6. C - the cultural landscape
7. B - the relationship between an area on a map and the actual area on the surface of the earth
8. C - absolute direction
9. A - time
10. D - landscape
11. C - William D. Pattison
12. B - culture-environment
13. A - the decrease in interaction as the distance between phenomena increases
14. D - 1600 Pennsylvania Avenue
15. C - describe the known parts of the inhabited world
Chapter 2 Questions
1. Using Figure 2.3, when it is Noon in New York City, what time of day is it in Tokyo, Japan?
a. 2:00 AM the same day
b. 9:00 PM the same day
c. 2:00 AM the next day
d. 9:00 PM the next day
2. The distance between each degree of latitude is approximately:
a. 69 km
b. 101 kin
c. 111 km
d. 360 kin
3. If a map is called equivalent, then it is correct for regions in terms of
a. area
b. distance
c. shape
d. direction
4. A small-scale map depicts:
a. a large amount of detail and a large amount of area
b. a large amount of detail and a small amount of area
c. a small amount of detail and a large amount of area
d. a small amount of detail and a small amount of area
5. With respect to Geographic Information Systems, the pixel is central to which data storage format?
a. vector
b. raster
c. polygon
d. boundary
6. Color infrared photography is useful because it:
a. produces natural color images of the landscape
b. penetrates clouds and vegetation as well as darkness
c. senses the energy emitted by objects
d. discerns and records images not visible to the human eye
7. On the earth grid system, longitude constitutes:
a. a half-circle of 180 degrees of arc which connects the earth's poles
b. a system of angular measurement for specifying location north or south of the equator
c. a system of angular measurement for specifying location along the east-west dimension
d. true east-west lines comprising a full circle of 360 degrees of arc
8. Which of the following is not required to locate a point in three-dimensional space?
a. latitude
b. longitude
c. elevation
d. size
9. Which of the key reference points in the global grid system is agreed upon by cartographers rather than given in nature?
a. the North Pole
b. the South Pole
c. the Equator
d. the Prime Meridian
10. The most accurate method of representing terrain on a map is to use:
a. proportional symbols
b. contour lines
c. areas
d. dots
11. All of the following are map projections except:
a. Conic
b. Cylindrical
c. Geoidal
d. Planar
12. The type of map which provides the most detailed information about the natural and cultural features of an area is the:
a. topographic map
b. cartograrn
c. orthophoto map
d., false color image
13. Which two projections are most useful for navigation?
a. Polyconic and Mercator
b. Mercator and Gnomonic
c. Lambert Equal Area and Polyconic
d. Mercator and Lambert Equal Area
14. The successful development of in-car navigation systems depends upon orbiting satellites called:
a. Landsat
b. SPOT
c. the Geodetic Control Data (GCD)
d. the Global Positioning System (GPS)
15. A map, whose areal units are normally not true to scale, and thus looks more like a diagram, is termed:
a. a cartogram
b. equal area
c. proportional symbol
d. topographic
1. C - 2:00 AM the next day
2. C - 111 km
3. A - rea
4. C - small amount of detail and a large amount of area
5. B - raster
6. D - discerns and records images not visible to the human eye
7. C - system of angular measurement for specifying location along the east-west dimension
8. D - size
9. D - the Prime Meridian
10. B - contour lines
11. C - Geoidal
12. A - topographic map
13. B - Mercator and Gnomonic
14. D - the Global Positioning System (GPS)
15. A - cartogram
Chapter 3
1. Which of the following soil horizons is comprised of coarsely broken-up bedrock?
a. A-horizon
b. B-horizon
c. C-horizon
d. D-horizon
2. The outer, lighter portion of the earth's lithosphere is the:
a. asthenosphere
b. crust
c. lower mantle
d. outer core
3. The effect of wind erosion is least prevalent in areas with:
a. exposed bedrock
b. sparse vegetation
c. sandy deserts
d. humid climates
4. Which of the following is an erosional form caused by mountain glaciers?
a. cirque
b. drumlin
c. outwash plain
d. esker
5. Petroleum deposits are found in areas of which rock type:
a. igneous
b. metarnorphic
c. sedimentary
d. volcanic
6. Which of the following is not one of the three gradational processes?
a. erosion
b. gravity transfer
c. volcanic emption.
d. weathering
7. Sandbars develop off of coastal shorelines as a result of
a. the backwash of waves
b. longshore currents
c. the breaking of waves
d. wind driven sand
8. The wind deposited material called loess is found predominantly in:
a. high latitude easterly wind belts
b. midlatitude westerly wind belts
c. low latitude easterly trade wind belts
d. equatorial regions
9. Magma, lava and laccolith are landforms associated with which earth process?
a. sedimentation
b. diastrophism
c. gravity transfer
d. volcanism
10. Where plates with different types of crust push against each other, the heavier crust is forced down below the lighter crust. This process is known as:
a. subduction
b. volcanism
c. tsunami
d. diastrophism
11. The three most important processes of chemical weathering are:
a. frost action, development of salt crystals, and root action
b. avalanches, landslides, and soil creep
c. oxidation, hydrolysis, and carbonation
d. capillary action, solution, and sedimentation
12. An earthquake is:
a. a constant force resulting from plate movement generated from within the earth
b. the process which transforms the earth's crust due to built up pressures
c. a break or fracture in rock resulting in displacement of the earth's crust
d. movement occurring along a fault or at some other point of weakness
13. Shale, sandstone and conglomerates are examples of which type of rock?
a. igneous
b. sedimentary
c. metamorphic
d. crystalline
14. All of the following are associated with stream landscapes in humid areas except:
a. alluvial fans
b. oxbow shaped lakes
c. natural levees
d. waterfalls
15. Anticlines and synclines are features associated with the process of
a. earthquakes
b. folding
c. faulting
d. warping
1. C - C-horizon
2. B - crust
3. D - humid climates
4. A - cirque
5. C - sedimentary'
6. C - volcanic eruption
7. A - the backwash of waves
8. B - midlatitude westerly wind belts
9. D - volcanism.
10. A - subduction.
11. C - oxidation, hydrolysis, and carbonation
12. D - movement occurring along a fault or at some other point of weakness
13. B - sedimentary
14. A - alluvial fans
15. B - folding
Chapter 4
1. The wind system which most strongly affects the climate of that portion of the earth's surface between the equator and 23.5 degrees North latitude is the:
a. northeast trades
b. polar easterlies
c. prevailing westerlies
d. southeast trades
2. The strongest winds are produced by:
a. extreme pressure differences over very short distances
b. extreme pressure differences over very long distances
c. small pressure differences over very short distances
d. small pressure differences over very long distances
3. On December 2 1, the sun is vertically overhead at:
a. the equator
b. the poles
c. 23.5 degrees North
d. 23.5 degrees South
4. The El Nino condition, or southern oscillation, is characterized by:
a. a westward flow of warm surface water away from South America
b. abnormally warm water off the west coast of South America every three or four years
c. the occurrence of severe drought for large portions of North America
d. a change of direction in the North Atlantic current
5. Climates are differentiated by variation in:
a. air pressure and precipitation
b. air pressure and temperature
c. precipitation and seasonal changes
d. temperature and precipitation
6. Which of the following statements concerning convectional precipitation is not correct?
a. It occurs where cool and warm air masses meet, most commonly in the mid latitudes.
b. It is characterized by brief periods of lightning, thunder and heavy rainfall.
c. It results from rising, moisture laden air.
d. Cumulus and cumulonimbus clouds are usually present
7. Which of the following factors does not cause climatic variations in the middle latitudes?
a. land-water configuration
b. mountain ranges
c. vegetation
d. warm or cold ocean currents
8. The average annual range in temperature is the highest:
a. at the equator
b. at the south pole region
c. over the mid-latitude deserts
d. over the northern hemisphere continents
9. The dominant vegetation in areas of Humid Continental climate is:
a. coniferous forests
b. grass and desert shrubs
c. chaparral (scrub oak trees and bushes)
d. deciduous forests
10. The soil type of a region is influenced mostly by the:
a. kind of bedrock below it
b. climate of the region
c. slope of the land
d. variety of organisms in the soil
11. Wind movements in the Northern Hemisphere tend to be deflected in what direction?
a. north
b. south
c. left
d. right
12. On March 21 and September 21:
a. there is an equal number of solstices
b. the vertical rays of the sun strike the equator
c. summer begins in the Southern Hemisphere
d. winter begins in the Southern Hemisphere
13. According to the normal lapse rate, if the temperature at 1000 meters elevation is 20 degrees C, then the temperature at 3000 meters would be:
a. 7.2 degrees C
b. 12.8 degrees C
c. 16.5 degrees C
d. 32.8 degrees C
14. Which type of climate is most often found to the north of Mediterranean climates?
a. Humid Continental
b. Marine West Coast
c. Mid-latitude Desert
d. Tundra
15. The two most fundamental factors concerning solar insolation are:
a. angle of the sun's rays and degree of cloud cover
b. angle of the sun's rays and number of daylight hours
c. elevation above sea level and number of daylight hours
d. elevation above sea level and degree of cloud cover
1. A - northeast trades
2. A - extreme pressure differences over very short distances
3. C - 23.5 degrees North
4. B - abnormally warm water off the west coast of South America every three or four years
5. D - temperature and precipitation
6. A - It occurs where cool and warm air masses meet, most commonly in the mid latitudes
7. C - vegetation
8. D - over-the northern hemisphere continents
9. A - coniferous forests
10. B - climate of the region
11. D - right
12. B - the vertical rays of the sun strike the equator
13. A - 7.2 degrees C
14. B - Marine West Coast
15. B - angle of the sun's rays and number of daylight hours
Chapter 5
1. The Greenhouse Effect is related most closely to:
a. increases in atmospheric carbon dioxide
b. nutrient enrichment of water through concentrations of fertilizer in agricultural runoff
c. the conversion of sulfur oxides into sulfuric acid (acid rain) in the atmosphere
d. the return of heated water to the environment
2. The hydrosphere refers to:
a. a stage in the hydrologic cycle
b. a population of organisms which live in wetland areas
c. regions with a large number of underground aquifers
d. the surface and subsurface waters in oceans, rivers, ice, glaciers and groundwater
3. Acid rain contamination in New England is blamed primarily on:
a. increased automobile emissions from states like California
b. midwestern coal burning power stations and industries
c. global warming
d. recent major volcanic eruptions in Asia
4. The end result from the eutrophication process is:
a. the extraction of groundwater from subsurface mining activities
b. expansion of and areas resulting from deforestation and overgrazing
c. nutrient enrichment of water bodies from agricultural fertilizers
d. alteration of rivers and streams to control floodwaters
5. Depletion of the earth's ozone layer is expected to lead to all of the following consequences except:
a. increases in the incidence of skin cancer
b. increases in human vulnerability to a variety of infectious diseases
c. an increase in sea temperatures causing melting of the polar ice caps
d. threaten the existence of the microscopic plankton at the base of the marine food chain
6. Each of the following are effects associated with industrial chemical water pollution except:
a. organisms not adapted to living in contaminated water die
b. alteration of rivers and streams to control floodwater and improve navigation
c. water may be unsuitable for domestic use or irrigation
d. wastes may re-enter the food chain with harmful effects to humans
7. Concentrations of such substances as DDT in plants and animals exemplifies a process known as:
a. biological magnification
b. eutrophication
c. temperature inversion
d. thermal pollution
8. The natural phosphorus cycle has been altered through human activity specifically because of
a. changes in ocean temperature which alter phosphorus levels in fish populations
b. excessive burning of tropical rainforests
c. overharvesting of fish
d. mining of phosphorus for fertilizer
9. The largest single source of human-caused air pollution in the United States is:
a. transportation
b. industry
c. solid waste disposal
d. electrical power generation
10. One possible effect of global warming would be:
a. an increase in the amount of fresh water throughout the globe
b. an increase in volcanic activity
c. coastal wetlands would be submerged
d. the continental interiors of middle latitudes would receive greater precipitation
11. An example of a terrestrial effect of acid rain is:
a. the killing of plants and insects on which fish feed
b. the killing of micro-organisms in the sea that break down organic matter and recycle nutrients
c. the corrosion of marble, limestone, and steel in buildings and monuments
d. the stimulation of excessive algae in lakes
12. The production of leachate, liquids that contaminate groundwater, results directly from:
a. solid waste landfills
b. incineration of trash
c. recycling of solid waste
d. dumping of solid wastes at sea
13. Which activity accounts for the greatest percentage of water usage in the United States?
a. agriculture
b. industry
c. mining
d. urbanization
14. Depletion of the earth's ozone layer will occur well into the next century largely because:
a. CFCs in the atmosphere will continue to be active for up to 100 years
b. developing countries are ignoring global treaties to reduce ozone depletion
c. halon gases are replacing CFCs as the most important threat to the ozone layer
d. increases in automobile use are offsetting gains resulting from elimination of CFCs
15. The major cause of deforestation across the earth is:
a. surface mining in the forms of open-pit and strip
b. conversion of forests for grazing land
c. clearing land for crop production
d. logging for wood products
1. A - increases in atmospheric carbon dioxide
2. D - the surface and subsurface waters in oceans, rivers, ice, glaciers and groundwater
3. B - midwestern coal burning power stations and industries
4. C - nutrient enrichment of water bodies from agricultural fertilizers
5. C - an increase in sea temperatures causing melting of the polar ice caps
6. B - alternation of rivers and streams to control floodwater and improve navigation
7. A - biological magnification
8. D - mining of phosphorus for fertilizer
9. A - transportation
10. C - coastal wetlands would be submerged
11. B - the killing of micro-organisms in the sea that break down organic matter as recycle nutrients
12. A - solid waste landfills
13. B - industry
14. A - CFCs in the atmosphere will continue to be active for up to 100 years
15. C - clearing land for crop production
Chapter 6
1. Which of the following statements concerning world population distribution is incorrect?
a. The majority of the world's population lives in the Northern Hemisphere.
b. More than two-thirds of the world's population lives on 50% of the world land area.
c. Nearly 80% of the world's population lives in lowlying areas of less than 500 meters in elevation.
d. Approximately two-thirds of the world's population is concentrated within 500 kilometers of an ocean.
2. The highest population densities are found in:
a. Canada
b. South Africa
c. South America
d. Western Europe
3. A country with a population of 5,000,000 persons and 10,000 deaths would have a crude death rate of
a. 15 per 1,000
b. 20 per 1,000
c. 35 per 1,000
d. 50 per 1,000
4. Globally, life expectancy increases and alterations to birth and death rates can be attributed to:
a. population growth
b. political policies regarding birth rates
c. modem medicine and improved sanitation
d. religious differences
5. Birth and death rates are described as "crude" because:
a. the total number of births and deaths can never be calculated accurately
b. it relates to the changes without any regard to the age and sex composition of the population
c. the infant mortality rate is separate from the birth and death calculations
d. there is no world-wide standard of what constitutes a birth or a death
6. Population pyramids can be used to provide evidence of
a. the reasons behind female life expectancy
b. the degree to which dependents will require access to medical services
c. future problems resulting from present population policies or practices
d. the demand for educational facilities
7. On a worldwide basis, population grows when:
a. births exceed deaths
b. births exceed migration
c. deaths exceed births
d. migration exceeds births
8. A country with a declining birth rate and a relatively stable death rate would be in which stage of the demographic transition?
a. Stage 1
b. Stage 2
c. Stage 3
d. Stage 4
9. Annual rates of natural increase classified as being very high (3.0 % or more) are represented throughout which continent?
a. Africa
b. Asia
c. Europe
d. South America
10. The term "ecumene" refers to:
a. the number of persons per areal unit
b. the number of persons an area can support
c. newly arrived migrants to a receiving country
d. the permanently inhabited areas of the earth's surface
11. According to Malthus, unless powerful checks are placed on a population, the population will continue to grow:
a. arithmetically
b. geometrically
c. only in areas of capital investment and unending social welfare programs
d. until it reaches a homeostatic plateau
12. What total fertility rate would be required just to replace the world's existing population?
a. 1. 0
b. 2. 1
c. 3.7
d. 5.8
13. Population projections are:
a. an excellent means of predicting future populations
b. available for every country on an annual basis
c. the social science equivalents of meteorological forecasts
d. estimates of the components of population based on current data
14. The single greatest health disparity between developed and developing nations is the:
a. birthrate
b. infant mortality rate
c. maternal mortality rate
d. death rate
15. Physiological density refers to population that is:
a. exerting pressure on agricultural land
b. concentrated in urban areas
c. relocating to areas with greater economic opportunities
d. experiencing high total fertility rates
1. B - More than two-thirds of the world's population lives on fifty percent of the world land area
2. D - Western Europe
3. B - 20 per 1,000
4. C - modem medicine and improved sanitation
5. B - it relates to the changes without any regard to the age and sex composition of the population
6. C - future problems resulting from present population policies or practices
7. A - births exceed deaths
8. C - Stage 3
9. A - Africa
10. D - the permanently inhabited areas of the earth's surface
11. B - geometrically
12. B - 2.1
13. D - estimates of the components of population based on current data
14. C - maternal mortality rate
15. A - exerting pressure on agricultural land
Chapter 7
1. Religions which tend to be expansionary, seeking to transmit their beliefs to new peoples and areas, are termed:
a. ethnic
b. secular
c. tribal
d. universalizing
2. The interlocking nature of all aspects of a culture is known as:
a. culture hearth
b. cultural integration
c. culture complex
d. cultural landscape
3. Under which form of economic organization does each sex maintain a respected, productive, coequal role in the kinship group?
a. industrial
b. commercial agriculture
c. hunting and gathering
d. subsistence agriculture
4. Which of the following is best classified as an element of the Ideological Subsystem of culture?
a. gross national product per capita
b. land and property ownership systems
c. literature
d.. schools
5. An established language used habitually by peoples with mutually incomprehensible tongues is known as:
a. lingua franca
b. dialects
c. speech community
d. standard language
6. Males and females are assigned different roles and rewards across different societies, and they are most strongly influenced by:
a. religious differences
b. level of economic development
c. biological differences between men and women
d. sex ratios
7. Recent conflicts between Tutsi and Hutu in Rwanda or Serbs and Croats in Bosnia are examples of
a. ethnic discord and separatism
b. amalgamation theory
c. syncretism
d. territorial segregation
8. The present day spatial distribution of Buddhism is best described as:
a. China, Tibet, Siberia, Korea
b. Northern India, China, Southeast Asia
c. Southeast Asia, Tibet, China, Mongolia, Japan
d. Tibet, India, Middle East, Japan
9. From the most specific to the most general, which of the following is the most accurate hierarchical representation of cultural units?
a. complex, realm, region, trait
b. trait, complex, realm, region
c. realm, region, complex, trait
d. trait, complex, region, realm
10. Of the world's major religions, the one which is no longer dominant in the region where it was f6rmed is:
a. Judaism
b. Mnduism
c. Islarn
d. Buddhism
11. When immigrants to a country give up many of their past cultural traits, lose their distinguishing characteristics and merge into the mainstream of the dominant culture, they are said to have:
a. acculturated
b. amalgamated
c.' adapted
d. assimilated
12. The prevalence of both French and English in Canada or German, French, and Italian in Switzerland are examples of
a. toponymy
b. multilingualism
c. lingua franca
d. different dialects
13. In cultural development terms, pre-agricultural societies are characterized by:
a. urbanization, industrialization, and technological complexity
b. the sharing of technologies, organizational structure and cultural traits and artifacts
c. a high percentage of people engaged in farming
d. small bands based on kinship ties, little social differentiation and no specialization of function
14. Which of the following is an example of non-material culture?
a. folk song and folk story
b. skyscrapers
c. furniture
d. musical instruments
15. The belief that the physical world shapes human activity and, therefore, culture has been labeled:
a. cultural integration
b. environmental determinism
c. the cultural landscape
d. possibilism
1. D - universalizing
2. B - cultural integration
3. C - hunting and gathering
4. C - literature
5. A - lingua ftanca
6. B - level of economic development
7. A - ethnic discord and separatism
8. C - Southeast Asia, Tibet, China, Mongolia, Japan
9. D - trait, complex, region, realm
10. D - Buddhism
11. D - assimilated
12. B - multilingualism
13. D - small bands based on kinship ties, little social differentiation and no specialization of function
14. A - folk song and folk story
15. B - environmental determinism
Chapter 8
1. Which of the following is not one of the three important variables which defines the spatial extent of individual activity spaces?
a. critical distance
b. mobility
c. opportunities
d. stage in life course
2. In which form of diffusion. does the concept of distance decay play a greater role?
a. relocation diffusion
b. contagious diffusion
c. hierarchical diffusion
d. migration
3. The value of a place as a migration destination is known as its:
a. critical distance
b. directional bias
c. place utility
d. spatial search
4. Territoriality refers to:
a. the extended home range within which daily affairs are carried out
b. the ability to adjust to a new environment
c. the distance beyond which cost and effort play an overriding role in our willingness to travel
d. the emotional attachment to home ground
5. Because of the multiple work, child-care, and home maintenance tasks, women's trip behavior differs from that of men's by the fact that they make:
a. fewer but longer trips
b. fewer but shorter trips
c. more but longer trips
d. more but shorter trips
6. Which of the following factors has caused more migrations than any other type?
a. economics
b. famine
c. politics
d. religion
7. In the majority of societies the most mobile segment of the population is:
a. retirees
b. teenagers
c. the middle aged
d. young adults
8. Which of the following statements concerning mental maps is correct?
a. Individually, they are true and complete images of the world.
b. The more familiar the place, the more sound will be the mental image of the place.
c. Opinions play no part in the mental map process.
d. Although mental maps are personal, two or more persons from the same neighborhood will have identical mental images.
9. The movement of Mexicans to the border states of California, Texas and New Mexico is an example of
a. contagious diffusion
b. hierarchical diffusion
c. channelized migration
d. push factors
10. Return migration occurs most often as a result of
a. false expectations based on distorted information about the destination
b. inability to adjust to a new environment
c. inability to find suitable employment
d. push factors in the new place such as high crime rates
11. Of all types of trips taken by urban residents, the most frequently occurring are:
a. personal business trips
b. school trips
c. shopping trips
d. work trips
12. Barriers to information flows lead to:
a. critical distance
b. directional bias
c. migration
d. spatial search
13. The spatial spread of Wal-Mart stores throughout the United States since the 1960s followed which diffusion process?
a. relocation 'A
b. hierarchical
c. forced
d. contagious
14. An example of a political barrier to migration would be:
a, the presence of seas, mountains and other natural features
b. restrictions on immigration and emigration by governments
c. the rise in the cost of travel with increases in distance
d. family, religious, ethnic, and community relationships
15. The two most common responses to the uncertainty of natural hazards are to eliminate the uncertainty and:
a. eliminate the hazard
b. make it determinate and knowable
c. move to a less hazardous area
d. transfer the uncertainty to a higher power
1. A - critical distance
2. B - contagious diffusion
3. C - place utility
4. D - the emotional attachment to home ground
5. D - more but shorter trips
6. A - economics
7. D - young adults
8. B - The more familiar the place, the more sound will be the mental image of the place
9. C - channelized migration
10. A - false expectations based on distorted information about the destination
11. D - work trips
12. B - directional bias
13. D - contagious
14. B - restrictions on immigration and emigration by governments
15. A - eliminate the hazard
Chapter 9
1. Gerrymandering is:
a. a form of reapportionment occasioned by shifts in population
b. a form of reapportionment which favors a political party
c. the cessation of a segregated school system
d. the formation of unified government services
2. A boundary is termed consequent if it is:
a. forced upon existing cultural landscapes, a country or a people by a conquering or colonizing power
b. ill-defined and fluctuating, marking the effective end of a state's authority
c. drawn to accommodate existing religious, ethnic, linguistic or economic differences between countries
d. drawn after the development of the cultural landscape
3. Which of the following is not considered to be a centripetal force in preserving state cohesiveness?
a. United Nations membership
b. nationalism
c. systems of transportation and communication
d. effective organization and administration of government
4. A group of people with a common culture occupying a particular territory is known as:
a. a nation
b. a nation-state
c. a state
d. a stateless nation
5. Countries which are roughly circular in shape, but have one or more narrow extensions of territory are classified as:
a. compact
b. elongated
c. fragmented
d. prorupt
6. An important reason for the formation of unified governments is to:
a. collect more tax revenues
b. make it appear as though a city is larger than it really is
c. make school districts smaller
d. reduce duplication of many services provided by local governments
7. Predevelopment annexation by municipal governments in the US is driven by:
a. the desire to free metropolitan governments from concern with problems best handled locally
b. preservation of the tax base and room for central city expansion
c. a concern that gerrymandering was splintering the black, urban vote
d. a need to reduce municipal government budgets
8. The combining of many electoral districts into just a few, resulting in the election of several candidates from each of the larger districts, is known as:
a. reapportionment
b. political fragmentation
c. modified at-large preference voting
d. stacked gerrymandering
9. Which of the following is classified as a forward thrust capitial city?
a. Brasilia
b. Canberra
c. Paris
d. Washington DC
10. The United Nations Convention on the Law of the Sea was stimulated by:
a. the fact that warships could no longer pass through major straits and canals
b. the Cold War between the USA and the former USSR
c. declining fish stocks in international waters
d. a shift from interest in commerce and national security to a preoccupation with seabed resources
11. Two preconditions which are common to regional autonomist movements are:
a. nationality and peripheral location
b. nationality and territory
c. social and economic inequality and territory
d.. territory and peripheral location
12. Singapore's primary resource is its:
a. absolute location
b. relative location
c. shape
d. size
13. Boundary lines develop in three distinct temporal stages. They are, in order:
a. definition, delimitation, demarcation
b. demarcation, definition, delimitation
c. definition, demarcation, relict
d. delimitation, irridentism, demarcation
14. The geopolitical theory which stressed the strategic advantages of land over sea power is known as:
a. the domino theory
b. the rimland theory
c. the lebensraum theory
d. the heartland theory
15. The 1990 Iraqi invasion of Kuwait resulted in part from what type of boundary dispute?
a. military
b. positional
c. resource
d. territorial
1. B - a form of reapportionment which favors a political party
2. C - drawn to accommodate existing religious, ethnic, linguistic or economic differences between countries
3. A - United Nations membership
4. A - a nation
5. D - prorupt
6. D - reduce duplication of many services provided by local governments
7. B - preservation of the tax base and room for central city expansion
8. C - modified at-large preference voting
9. A - Brasilia
10. D - a shift from interest in commerce and national security to a preoccupation with seabed resources
11. B - nationality and territory
12. B - relative location
13. A - definition, delimitation, demarcation
14. B - rimland theory
15. C - resource
Chapter Ten
1. Secondary activities involve:
a. the harvesting or extracting of resources
b. manufacturing and construction
c. retailing and wholesaling of goods
d. research and development
2. Within the United States, services accounted for approximately what percentage of non-farm employment in the 1990s?
a. 15
b. 22
c. 60
d. 80
3. The Green Revolution resulted in improvements in which crops?
a. wheat, maize, and rice
b. sorghum, maize, and cassava
c. peanuts, wheat, and yams
d. rice, millet, and yams
4. Out-sourcing is:
a. choosing alternate sources of raw materials
b. physically delimiting a company's market for others
c. producing parts or products abroad for domestic sale
d. selling goods at a cheaper price to close down competitors
5. According to von Thunen, crops which have both high market price and high transport costs will be grown:
a. at the economic margin of cultivation
b. in peripheral areas
c. in specialized growing regions
d. nearest the market
6. The pattern of international commodity flows in primary commodities is from:
a. producers in less developed countries to processors and consumers in less developed countries
b. producers in less developed countries to processors and consumers in more developed countries
c. producers in more developed countries to processors and consumers in less developed countries
d. producers in more developed countries to processors and consumers in more developed countries
7. Industries which are considered "footloose":
a. are fly-by-night operations
b. are found in predominantly agricultural areas
c. are not affected by transportation costs
d. require multiple sources of raw materials
8. The largest and most important single industrial area in Europe today:
a. is centered on the Ruhr district
b. consists of the Czech portion of the Bohemian Basin
c. specializes in toiletries and high fashion garments
d. traces its origins to the textile industry in England
9. No matter what type of economic system prevails in a region, no advanced economy can flourish without:
a. agriculture
b. a favorable political climate
c. secondary activities
d. a well-connected transport network
10. Quaternary economic activities involve all of the following except:
a. communication ability
b. natural resources
c. specialized knowledge
d. technical skills
11. Intensive subsistence agriculture is found predominantly in:
a. monsoon Asia
b. peripheral Latin America
c. the high latitude region of Scandinavia
d. sub-Saharan Afiica
12. The production of metallic minerals is primarily based upon the:
a. distances to the raw sources, quantity of the ores, and availability of hydroelectricity
b. quantity of the ores, richness of the ores, and ability to refine the ores
c. quantity of the ores, richness of the ores, and distance to the markets
d. richness of the ores, availability of hydroelectricity, and distance to raw sources
13. Raw material orientation is presumed to exist when:
a. manufacturing uses commonly available weight gaining materials
b. there are limited alternative material sources
c. in its pure state, there is a low proportion of impurities
d. the material is not perishable
14. Which of the following statements regarding the role of women in agriculture is not correct?
a. The advances from the Green Revolution were unkind to women in that it reduced the female role in agricultural development programs.
b. Women farmers are responsible for at least 50% of the world's food.
c. Women farmers share equally in the rewards from agriculture with men farmers.
d. Women farmers work longer hours for lower wages than men farmers.
15. Extensive subsistence agriculture, as an economic activity, is best described by:
a. wandering but controlled movement of livestock
b. large wheat farms and livestock ranching
c. large amounts of capital and labor, high crop yields and high market value per unit of land
d. self-sufficiency, low product per land unit and low population densities
1. B - manufacturing and construction
2. D - 80
3. A - wheat, maize, and rice
4. C - producing parts or products abroad for domestic sale
5. D - nearest the market
6. B - producers in less developed countries to processors and consumers in more developed countries
7. C - are not affected by transportation costs
8. A - is centered on the Ruhr district
9. D - a well-connected transport network
10. B - natural resources
11. A - monsoon Asia
12. C - quantity or the ores, richness of the ores, and distance to the markets
13. B - there are limited alternative material sources
14. C - Women farmers share equally in the rewards from agriculture with men farmers
15. D - self-sufficiency, low product per land unit and low population densities
Chapter 11
1. Whether a material is considered to be a resource or not is a function of
a. cultural circumstances
b. physical circumstances
c. the economic situation of a particular country
d. its geographical location
2. Based on current rates of production, the world reserves of iron ore are only expected to last for how many years?
a. 20
b. 41
c. 59
d. 152
3. Which of the following is not a global concern generated by the destruction of the tropical rainforests?
a. the maintenance of the oxygen and carbon balances of the earth
b. the increase in pollution and global climate change
c. the increasing destruction of the ozone layer
d. the eradication of plant and animal species unique to these regions
4. Which of the following statements concerning renewable resources is not correct?
a. They include such energy fuels as biomass.
b. They can never be exhausted.
c. They can be exhausted if the rate of exploitation exceeds the rate of regeneration.
d. Hydropower supplies approximately twenty-five percent of the world's electricity.
5. The development of synfuel technologies was stimulated by:
a. a decline in federal support for oil and gas exploration
b. rising energy prices in the 1970s
c. the depletion of coal reserves in the Appalachian Mountains
d. the search for a non-nuclear based form of energy
6. The shift from renewable resources to those derived from the fossil fuels initiated the:
a. Agricultural Revolution
b. Cultural Revolution
c. Green Revolution
d. Industrial Revolution
7. The largest, continuous belt of commercial forests in the world is located in the:
a. equatorial zones of Central and South America
b. lower tropical latitudes of the Southern Hemisphere
c. sub-Saharan region of Africa
d. upper-middle latitudes of the Northern Hemisphere
8. Almost 90% of the world's annual fish supply comes from:
a. inland waters
b. the coast of Peru
c. the continental shelf
d. the open seas
9. With respect to the relationship between gross national product and energy consumption:
a. as the former decreases the latter increases
b. as the former increases the latter decreases
c. they both increase directly with each other
d. there is no relationship between the two
10. A continuous and increasing threat to usable cropland on a global basis is:
a. political instability
b. urbanization
c. the Green Revolution
d. slash and bum agricultural techniques
11. Neither geothermal energy nor wind power have made substantial contributions to the world's energy needs because:
a. people are not fascinated by them
b. they have only a localized potential
c. they require enormous amounts of land
d. they create vast amounts of pollution
12. The amount of proved reserves changes:
a. as countries move into the Industrial Revolution
b. as substitutes for specific resources are found
c. as reuse of resources becomes more popular
d. with changes in extraction technology and economic conditions
13. The nearly perfect energy source is:
a. coal
b. natural gas
c. petroleum
d. nuclear fusion
14. Seventy percent of the world's proved natural gas reserves are found in:
a. Asia and Africa
b. Latin America and Western Europe
c. Middle East and Russia
d. North and South America
15. Which of the following is not considered a proper resource management technique?
a. carefully using resources to conserve them for future generations
b. increasing the supply of fossil fuels through the use of synfuels
c. reusing materials to reduce the consumption of reserves
d. substituting other non-fuel energy sources for gas and oil
1. A - cultural circumstances
2. D - 152
3. C - The increasing destruction of the ozone layer
4. B - They can never be exhausted
5. B - rising energy prices in the 1970s
6. D - Industrial Revolution
7. D - upper-middle latitudes of the Northern Hemisphere
8. C - the continental shelf
9. C - they both increase directly with each other
10. B - urbanization
11. B - they have only a localized potential
12. D - with changes in extraction technology and economic conditions
13. B - natural gas
14. C - Middle East and Russia
15. B - increasing the supply of fossil fuels through the use of synfuels
Chapter 12
1. The classification of cities into categories based on functional specialization is part of which theory?
a. Central Place Theory
b. Economic Base Theory
c. Urban Hierarchy Theory
d. Cumulative Causation Theory
2. The one indicator of social segregation in American cities that has undergone the most widespread change is:
a. ethnicity
b. social status
c. family status
d. racial status
3. Which of the following statements concerning the multiplier effect is correct?
a. It is based on the city's fertility rates.
b. It only increases; it does not decrease.
c. It is only useful in larger metropolitan areas.
d. The size of the effect is determined by the city's basic/nonbasic ratio.
4. Land-use arrangements in most cities worldwide are strongly influenced by:
a. age of the city
b. primate structure
c. population change
d. institutional controls
5. In the North American city, the population density is the highest:
a. in the Central Business District
b. just outside the center of the city
c. in the suburbs
d. at the outer fringe of the metropolitan area
6. A country whose urban system approximates rank-size ordering is:
a. Egypt
b. Nairobi
c. South Korea
d. United States
7. The economic stability of central cities has been severely damaged by:
a. suburbanization of the residential population
b. the annexation of outlying areas
c. intense competition for the most central locations
d. gentrification and the growth of gated communities
8. Today, cities which are compact and designed for pedestrians are found in which region of the world?
a. North America
b. Europe
c. Latin America
d. South Asia
9. Which of the statements concerning Christaller's Central Place Theory is incorrect?
a. If one town were eliminated, then the entire system would have to readjust.
b. Larger towns are spaced farther apart than smaller towns.
c. The number of larger towns and the number of smaller towns are roughly equal.
d. Towns of the same size are evenly spaced.
10. Which of the following is not a common feature of cities in the developing world?
a. massive in-migrations from rural areas
b. populations greater than their formal functions and employment bases can support
c. a large informal sector
d. a spine, which reflects the continuation of the CBD into the suburbs
11. The process of gentrification. has resulted in:
a. the movement of middle class people to deteriorated portions of the inner city
b. gated communities
c. a concentration of architecturally unique buildings in the CBD
d. the establishment of homeless shelters in residential neighborhoods
12. The total economic structure of the city equals:
a. its basic activities
b. its nonbasic activities
c. the difference between its basic and nonbasic activities
d. the sum of its basic and nonbasic activities
13. Which of the following typically has the largest areal extent?
a. Central Business District
b. Central City
c. Urbanized Area
d. Metropolitan Area
14. Social areas within a city are defined by:
a. businesses, ethnicity and residences
b. economic base, ethnicity and residences
c. family status, ethnicity and social status
d. social status, family status and economic base
15. The land use type which usually occupies the most accessible sites in the city is:
a. agriculture
b. commercial
c. industrial
d. residential
1. B - Economic Base Theory
2. C - family status
3. B - It only increases; it does not decrease
4. D - institutional controls
5. B - just outside the center of the city
6. D - United States
7. A - suburbanization of the residential population
8. B - Europe
9. C - The number of larger towns and the number of smaller towns are roughly equal
10. D - a spine, which reflects the continuation of the CBD into the suburbs
11. A - the movement of middle class people to deteriorated portions of the inner city
12. D - the sum of its basic and nonbasic activities
13. D - Metropolitan Area
14. C - family status, ethnicity and social status
15. B - commercial
Chapter 13
1. A domain is defined as:
a. a centralized zone of concentration with the greatest homogeneity of regional character
b. an area of essential uniformity throughout in one or a combination of physical features
c. an area where a phenomenon is dominant but with less intensity and totality of development
d. the zone of broadest but least intensive expression of the regional character
2. An example of a region which is independent of human influence and unaffected by time on the human scale is the:
a. ecosystem region
b. landform region
c. language region
d political region
3. The fact that regions are hierarchically arranged means that:
a. they are based on the areal spread of features selected for study
b. they are often expressed by a regional name
c. they cover a specified territory
d. they define only a part of a spatial reality
4. All of the following are major source regions for air masses except:
a. continental maritime
b. continental polar
c. maritime polar
d. maritime tropical
5. The study of spatial relationships from the standpoint of systems analysis emphasizes:
a. the bringing of clarity to the seeming confusion of the observable physical and cultural features of the
world we inhabit
b. the organization, structure, and functional dynamics within an area and provides for the quantification
of the linkages between things in space
c. the spatial dominance of the phenomenon giving definition to the region
d. that regions are spatial expressions of ideas or summaries useful to the analysis of the problem at hand
6. The three dominant biological communities (biomes) of the Everglades are:
a. open water, saw grass, and woody vegetation
b. sand dunes, saw grass, and open water
c. open water, mangrove swamps, and sand dunes
d. locks and dams, open water, and mangrove swamps
7. With respect to regions defined by the distribution of culture groups, the "sphere" refers to:
a. a centralized zone of concentration and greatest homogeneity of regional character
b. areas where the culture is dominant but with less intensity
c. the zone of broadest but least intensive expression of the regional character
d. the global culture of the earth
8. The name of a region emphasizes the importance of its:
a. function
b. absolute location
c. relative location
d. hierarchy
9. An example of a small region of single factor homogeneity within a much larger multifactor region is:
a. political regions in the Indian Subcontinent
b. the concentration of Gullah speakers on the sea islands of the Atlantic coast
c. Appalachia
d. the Black Hills
10. The type of region which has increasingly become a device for examining what might or should be is the:
a. political region
b. culture region
c. landfonn region
d. economic region
11. With the end of British rule on the Indian subcontinent in 1947, the countries of India and Pakistan were created based upon:
a. economic differences
b. language differences
c. race
d. religious differences
12. Which of the following regional examples exhibit both horizontal and vertical extent?
a. the Black Hills Province and the Yurok World View
b. air masses and the Schuylkill anthracite region
c. political regions in the Indian Subcontinent and Gullah as language
d. Appalachia and Megalopolis
13. Which of the following is not one of the distinctive forms of regions found within the Earth-Science Tradition?
a. single factor formal
b. multiple factor formal
c. multiple factor functional
d. ecosystem or biome
14. An example of a functional region is:
a. a boreal forest
b. the Delmarva Peninsula
c. a newspaper circulation area
d. a vernal pool
15. A major consequence of the regional clustering of population in Latin America has been:
a. the drawing of political boundaries across sparsely populated territory
b. only one population cluster per nation
c. the complete overlap of total national territory and effective national territory
d. an advanced state of development of overland transportation routes between population clusters
1. C - an area where a phenomenon is dominant but with less intensity and totality of development
2. B - landform region
3. D - they define only a part of reality
4. A - continental maritime
5. B - the organization, structure, and functional dynamics within an area and provides for the quantification of
- the linkages between things in space
6. A - open water, saw grass, and woody vegetation
7. C - the zone of broadest but least intensive expression of the regional character
8. C - relative location
9. B - the concentration of Gullah speakers on the sea islands of the Atlantic coast
10. D - economic region
11. D - religious differences
12. B - air masses and the Schuylkill anthracite region
13. C - multiple factor functional
14. C - a newspaper circulation area
15. A - the drawing of political boundaries across sparsely populated territory
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